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Analyze/Featured
Stress-test a Chapter 11 plan for feasibility
Runs a proposed plan through the feasibility standard with real numbers (coverage by year, the tightest month of cash, three downside cases) and names the assumption the objector will depose first.
Your prompt
2
Pressure-test it
3
Go deeper
Before you run it
What to gather first
Watch for
What comes back
See an example of what you’ll get
*(After you answer the four questions: Year 1 starts from trailing-twelve-month actuals, the CFO signed the projections rather than a retained expert, exit financing is a term sheet and not a signed commitment, no class has voted and there is no plan support agreement, and the committee has retained a financial advisor.)*
Bottom line. MODERATE, dropping to LOW without two amendments. The plan works only if FY26 revenue recovers to FY22 levels (a 19% jump off trailing twelve months with no signed contract behind it) and Year 2 minimum cash falls to $480K in March against average monthly working capital swings of $1.1M.
Standard applied. § 1129(a)(11) (traditional case). § 1129(b) cramdown will be reached for Class 4 (GUC, 22%, impaired, vote pending) and Class 5 (equity, deemed to reject).
Reconciliation. Year 1 revenue of $42.1M is +8% over TTM of $39.0M and is supported by two customer agreements signed in Q1 2025 ($4.8M combined): defensible. Year 2 of $46.3M is +19% and assumes one of those customers expands to a regional master supply agreement that is not signed. This is the objection.
Coverage by year.
| Year | EBITDA | Debt service | Ratio | Cushion |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Y1 | $5.8M | $3.1M | 1.87x | $2.7M |
| Y2 | $6.9M | $4.4M | 1.57x | $2.5M, but on unsigned revenue |
| Y3 | $7.6M | $4.6M | 1.65x | $3.0M |
| Y5 | $8.5M | $2.1M + balloon | n/a | Refinancing risk |
Tightest month. March of Year 2: $480K minimum cash, immediately after the Q1 tax payment, against $1.1M average monthly swings and no revolver post-effective date. One receivable slipping 30 days takes the debtor negative.
Downside cases. Revenue −10%: Y2 EBITDA $4.4M, coverage 1.00x, cash negative in March. Plan breaks. Margin −200bp: Y2 EBITDA $6.0M ($6.9M less 2% of $46.3M), coverage 1.36x, survives. Largest customer lost: Y2 EBITDA $5.0M, coverage 1.14x, survives with no cushion.
Amendments that move the number. (1) Eighteen-month interest-only period on the FNB note: Y2 coverage 1.57x → 2.10x, March minimum cash $480K → $1.6M. (2) $1.5M sponsor revolver, undrawn: removes the single-receivable failure mode. (3) Reset Year 2 revenue to signed contracts only ($44.0M) and re-test. Better to concede the assumption than to defend it on cross.
Assumptions I had to make. The debt service line in the projections ($3.1M in Year 1, $4.4M in Year 2, $4.6M in Year 3) is cash interest plus scheduled amortization with no mandatory sweep [verify - the plan summary does not say]. No revolver exists post-effective date [verify - absence of mention is not the same as absence].
What your answers changed. That the committee has retained a financial advisor is what holds this at MODERATE rather than HIGH: an unrepresented objector does not reconcile Year 2 to trailing twelve months, and an advisor will do it in the first week. That exit financing is a term sheet rather than a signed commitment is why the Year 5 balloon sits in the coverage table as refinancing risk instead of a footnote, and it is the second reason amendment (1) is not optional. Your answer that the CFO rather than an expert signed the projections changed no number in this memo, but it names your declarant, and the unsigned Year 2 master supply agreement is what she will be crossed on. The class-voting answer changed nothing. Class 4 was going to be a cramdown question either way.
Why this prompt is built the way it is
## Framework
1. **Name the standard, do not blend them.** Traditional Chapter 11 runs on § 1129(a)(11): confirmation not likely to be followed by liquidation or further reorganization. A nonconsensual Subchapter V plan runs on the § 1191(c) projected-disposable-income test. Say which applies and why.
2. **Reconcile to history before touching the model.** Year 1 against trailing actuals, with the percentage change stated and the operational event that produces it named. An unexplained step-change is finding one.
3. **Coverage every year.** EBITDA over cash interest plus scheduled amortization, to two decimals, with the dollar cushion. Year 1 comfort hides Year 3 problems.
4. **The tightest month, not the tightest year.** Minimum cash against the largest working capital swing. A plan that is break-even annually and runs to zero every March fails.
5. **Three downside cases, with numbers.** Revenue down 10%, gross margin down 200bp, largest customer gone. Report coverage and minimum cash for each and say which one breaks the plan and when.
6. **Class by class.** Treatment, impairment, acceptance or deemed rejection, and for each rejecting class the cramdown provision plus the one factual issue that gates it.
7. **New value gets the full test.** If equity or an insider takes an interest: new, substantial, money or money's worth, necessary, reasonably equivalent, and whether the interest is exposed to a market test.
8. **Likelihood tied to objectors.** HIGH / MODERATE / LOW, naming who raises each risk and which assumption they attack, followed by amendments stated with their numerical effect.